- 3. A 23-year-old woman presents to her GP withmenorrhagia. The GP requests a coagulation screen and the resultsof this are shown below:
- The prolonged PT and APTT correct in a 50:50 mix withnormal plasma.
Test | Patient | Reference Range |
PT | 34s | 11-14s |
APTT | 82s | 23-35s |
Fibrinogen (Clauss) | 2.6g/L | 1.5-4.0g/L |
Thrombin Time | 13s | 10-13s |
1. What questions might you ask this lady that would beof relevance?
2. How would you proceed with the investigation of thispatient?
A 45-year-old man presents with an extensive above kneeDVT extending into the iliac veins. He is otherwise well with nopast medical history of note.
His pre-anticoagulation screen shows:
Test | Patient | Reference Range |
PT | 14s | 11-14s |
APTT | >120s | 23-35s |
Fibrinogen (Clauss) | 3.2g/L | 1.5-4.0g/L |
Thrombin Time | 13s | 10-13s |
- 1. What is the most likely diagnosis?
- Factor XII:C <1 IU/dl.
- Do you think the FXII deficiency is clinicallyimportant?
If you elect to treat this patient with unfractionatedheparin how would you monitor this?
