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Advance Math

. Let x, y ? R {0}. Prove that if x < x^(?1) < y

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By multiplicative inverse axiom we have xx1 1 Now observe x x1 lets take two cases x 0 and x 0 a x 0 Multiply both sides by x sign of inequality wont change when we multiply with a positive number xx xx1 x2 1 x belongs to 11 but our domain    See Answer
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